1. Which reason listed below is NOT one of the reasons given in the text for why you should study mass communication?
A. To think critically about the messages the media send us
B. To become a more thoughtful media consumer
C. To be better informed about the communication styles of the twentieth century.
D. To recognize the significance of the media and the role they play in shaping our understanding of the world.
2. In mass communication, the means by which a message is sent is called the
A. Source
B. Feedback
C. Receiver
D. Channel
3. An example of ________ is when the news director at a local television station makes the decision to not air a highly controversial episode of the "Jerry Springer" Show.
A. Gatekeeping
B. Agenda setting
C. Framing
D. Masking
4. The fact that some magazines reflect a more liberal point of view while others reflect a more conservative point of view illustrates the concept of
A. Gatekeeping
B. Agenda setting
C. Framing
D. Masking
5. Our oldest and one of our most reliable sources of information is
A. Television
B. News magazines
C. Newspapers
D. The Internet
6. The immediacy of the news is much more of a factor with
A. Television
B. News magazines
C. Newspapers
D. Professional journals
7. ________ is/are better for in-depth treatment of recent events than are ________ and ________.
A. Television; news magazines and newspapers
B. Newspapers; television and news magazines
C. News magazines; newspapers and television
D. News magazines; professional journals and newspapers
8. Some of the most "outrageous" news comes from
A. Newspapers
B. News magazines
C. Television
D. The Internet
9. Which statement below is NOT true for professional journals?
A. They are written for specialized audiences.
B. They are often resistant to new ideas that run counter to established notions.
C. All professional journals represent the same high standards of quality.
D. They often use jargon that is difficult for an ordinary person to understand.
10. Which statement below is NOT one of the suggestions mentioned in the text on how to be a critical consumer?
A. Don't get all your information from one source or medium.
B. Wait at least one day before deciding to make a purchase from the QVC Home Shopping Network.
C. Be aware of underlying biases in the publications you read.
D. Learn to think for yourself.
11. Which concept is closely related to the cost-benefit model of human relationships?
A. bargaining
B. bickering
C. borrowing
D. lending
12. Which of the following is NOT one of the three stages in interpersonal relationships?
A. social penetration
B. relational development
C. relational deterioration
D. relational maintenance
13. Which stage is NOT one of the stages of "coming together?"
A. circumscribing
B. experimenting
C. bonding
D. intensifying
14. In what stage do first impressions and the sizing up of another person occur?
A. integration
B. differentiation
C. intensification
D. initiation
15. The stage in the relationship in which the two people involved begin mirroring each other's behavior in manner, dress, and language is called the
A. bonding stage
B. integrating stage
C. intensifying stage
D. experimenting stage
16. What do we call the stage in which the two partners start emphasizing their individual differences?
A. differentiation
B. circumscription
C. stagnation
D. avoidance
17. Which statement about relationships is false?
A. We initially develop a relationship on the basis of factors like personal charisma and attractiveness.
B. In maintained relationships we desire certain levels of predictability or certainty.
C. In maintained relationships empathy, care, and concern become more important.
D. In maintained relationships our partner's expressive traits (such as extroversion and spontaneity) become more important.
18. Which of the following would be a good example of self-disclosure?
A. You tell the person you meet that you are nearly six feet tall.
B. You tell the person you meet that you are African American.
C. You tell the person you meet that you are getting bald.
D. You tell the person that you meet that your parents were originally from Mississippi.
19. Which statement about the way men and women self disclose is false?
A. Men avoid self-disclosure to maintain control over relationships.
B. Women avoid self-disclosure to avoid personal hurt.
C. Men are more willing than women to disclose to strangers and casual acquaintances.
D. Women frequently tend to be unable to self-disclose to intimates.
20. The opposite of defensive communication is____,
A. descriptive
B. supportive
C. provisional
D. neutral
21. The defensive communication called control is paired with which supportive communication?
A. problem orientation
B. empathy
C. equality
D. description
22. The opposite of provisionalism is the defensive communication called
A. problem orientation
B. neutrality
C. superiority
D. certainty
23. The behavior exhibited when you try to adopt the other person's perspective (e.g., "I know how you feel") is called
A. equality
B. empathy
C. problem orientation
D. provisionalism
24. The ability to communicate feelings and ideas directly and honestly is called
A. aggressiveness
B. defensiveness
C. assertiveness
D. openness
25. The concept that suggests that your roommate is more likely to become your friend than is a person ten blocks away is known as
A. proximity
B. similarity
C. collaboration
D. familiarity
26. Which statement about friendship is false?
A. Friends are frequently people who initially dislike us.
B. Friends often look like us, act like us, and think like us.
C. Friends are chosen; they are not accidental.
D. Friends are often desirable to work with and usually look good to us in appearance.
27. He is good at writing and understanding literature; she is a whiz at math and statistics; together they make a great pair. The concept of friendship illustrated here is
A. symmetry
B. complementarity
C. responsiveness
D. proximity
28. Which of the following is NOT one of the "rules" of friendship revealed by research?
A. Friends stand up for each other even when they are not present.
B. Friends demonstrate trust in each other.
C. Friends show emotional support for each other.
D. Friends do not experience conflict with each other.
29. "The ability to alter behavior in order to adapt to new situations and to relate in new ways when necessary" is a definition of
A. androgeny
B. behavioral flexibility
C. passages
D. complementary relationships.
30. Which of the following is the best example of androgeny?
A. She is a hard-driving boss at work and treats her kids the same way at home.
B. A single mother, she is affectionate with her children at home and a real professional at work.
C. He never sheds a tear about anything in public or in private because he is a real male.
D. She cries in frustration when she fails at work, and at home she does what she is told to do.
31. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of family given in the text.
A. organized
B. common living quarters
C. exchange of meaning
D. functional
32. A family image is
A. The verbal an nonverbal pictures we use to describe our family and its members
B. The forms of symbolic communication that are systematically repeated and that contribute to family satisfaction.
C. The underlying family perspectives or points of view.
D. One's positive or negative assessment of family life.
33. Which family type may include unrelated adults sharing living quarters?
A. Couples with no children
B. Single-parent families
C. Cohabitating couples
D. Blended families
34. Which type of family calls into question basic assumptions of sex roles and functions within the family unit?
A. extended families
B. single-parent families
C. couples with no children
D. dual-worker families
35. Which family type was usually depicted by media in the 1960s?
A. extended families
B. nuclear families
C. blended families
D. single-parent families
36. Which of the general conclusions about family satisfaction would be reflected in the family's ability to interpret, positively, other family members' behaviors?
A. Family satisfaction is related to family members' ability to provide supportive and positive comments to each other.
B. Family satisfaction is related to the family's ability to reach consensus, to resolve differences, and to avoid or minimize conflict.
C. Family satisfaction is related to family members' ability to favorably perceive the communicative behavior of other family members.
D. Family satisfaction is related to family members' ability to provide both verbal, and nonverbal messages to each other.
37. I have a friend who is living with her mother, husband, son, cousin, and brother so that they can share in the care of family members. This type of family is known as
A. blended family
B. extended family
C. cohabiting family
D. nuclear family
38. Which of the following is NOT a family ritual?
A. Sunday is family day.
B. Everyone gathers to watch a particular TV show
C. Before a meal, everyone holds hands to give thanks.
D. Everyone helped clean up after the fire
39. Which association below is NOT part of the textbook definition of interpersonal relationships?
A. one between two or more people who are interdependent
B. one between two or more people who have interacted for some period of time
C. one between two or more people who use some consistent patters of interaction
D. one between two or more people who exhibit affection toward each other
40. Which of the following descriptions applies to someone with an interpersonal relationship as defined in the book?
A. a father who left his family long ago and believes that he has a relationship with a she he has not seen or heard from for years
B. a guy who drops into the restaurant every couple of months, knows the waitress's first name, and believes that he has an interpersonal relationship with her
C. a married couple that have quarreled with each other for year
D. a woman who cannot remember the names of all the men she has dated in the last year
41. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons cited in the text as to why we engage in interpersonal relationships?
A. to increase our understanding of ourselves
B. to increase our understanding of others
C. to fulfill our needs
D. to improve our mental health
42. Which of the following best describes the uncertainty principle?
A. Our uncertainties about ourselves are reduced by relating to others.
B. Our uncertainties about others are reduced by drawing inferences from physical data when we meet.
C. Our uncertainties about our relationship with another person disappear quickly with a little talk.
D. Our uncertainties about our hidden self are exposed when we communicate with others.
43. Talking to others about an impending exam or meeting regularly with other substance abusers are examples from the book of the interpersonal relationships. Which of the following I s a reason for this type of relationship?
A. to understand ourselves
B. to understand others
C. to understand our world
D. to fulfill our needs
44. According to William Schultz, three interpersonal needs that are satisfied through interaction with others are
A. inclusion, affection, and control
B. physical well-being, safety, and security
C. inclusion, self-actualization, and socialization
D. esteem, affection, and control
45. Which of the following is a good example of a complementary relationship?
A. She likes him a lot, but he doesn't think much of her.
B. She is shy, and he likes to speak for both of them.
C. She is good at math and so is he, so they both do the family budget.
D. She likes food and so does he, so they both enjoy every meal.
46. A relationship in which the two people are very similar is called a(n)
A. complementary relationship
B. symmetrical relationship
C. cost-benefit relationship
D. independent relationship
47. Which statement about culture and co-culture is false?
A. A dominant culture can include within it a number of co-cultures.
B. An individual can be a participant in more than one co-culture.
C. A co-culture can actually have a numerical majority but still be a co-culture.
D. An individual in a co-culture is easy to identify because his or her "membership" is visible.
48. Which of the following statements about co-language is false?
A. Co-languages facilitate effective communication within the co-culture.
B. Co-languages allow the co-culture to have power over the dominant culture.
C. Co-languages create a sense of identity within the co-culture.
D. Co-languages create a sense of belongingness to those who use them.
49. Which of the following is an example of argot or cant?
A. Drug dealers and users have a vocabulary for talking about different drugs, effects, and costs.
B. Lawyers and judges have a language for talking about the law, the cases, and the people involved in cases.
C. Physicians have a vocabulary for talking about the body, diseases, and death.
D. Physics professors have a language for describing physical laws and principles.
50. Which statement about slang is false?
A. Slang is derived from jargon.
B. Slang is temporary in popularity.
C. Slang is widely known to the dominant culture.
D. Some slang becomes socially acceptable, but it is practically never used in formal settings.
51. Which statement below is NOT an example of ethnocentrism?
A. If the Japanese would just shake hands like we do¾instead of bowing¾we would get along better.
B. Don't you wish everyone in the world would use deodorant and perfume as Americans do?
C. American workers get higher pay for less work than most people in the world.
D. Americans have developed the best civilized society in history.
52. Which statement about stereotypes is false?
A. A stereotype can be positive.
B. Stereotyping is unavoidable.
C. Stereotyping is the art of generalizing about an individual based on his or her membership in a specific group.
D. Stereotyping rarely causes communication problems.
53. The preferred way to avoid an ethnocentric perspective is to
A. be cautious about assuming similarity and recognize differences among people.
B. deny differences because stating that you recognize them can only get you into trouble.
C. assume that other individuals would prefer to think and act as you do.
D. discover what you have in common, but assume that others are fundamentally different.
54. Which of the following is NOT a strategy for improving intercultural communication?
A. Practice supportive communication and avoid defense communication.
B. Avoid stereotyping and hasty generalizations.
C. Adopt an ethnocentric perspective.
D. Practice personal self-assessment.
55. What is tolerance of ambiguity?
A. a cognitive style that emphasizes open-mindedness about differences
B. the frustration and early termination of communication in intercultural communication
C. using words to confuse the interpreter of the code
D. assuming that others think and act as we do
56. Which of the following is NOT true of a collectivist culture?
A. value commitment to family
B. tend to be loyal to community
C. place a higher value on cooperation
D. high levels of divorce
57. All of the following are examples of implicit-rule cultures except
A. Western Europe
B. Latin America
C. Africa
D. Middle East
58. All of the following are reasons listed in your text for why you should study small group communication EXCEPT
A. Groups are everywhere.
B. It is more fun to do things with a group of people rather than as an individual.
C. Small groups are a means of participating in the democratic process.
D. Groups meet needs that people cannot meet as individuals.
59. Which of the following statements about the creation of outcomes in public speaking, small-group and dyadic communication is FALSE?
A. In a public-speaking situation, the speaker is largely responsible for creating the speech, and determining its outcome.
B. In small group, the group members are mutually, equally responsible for creating the group's outcome.
C. In dyadic communication, all participants have an equal share in and an equal responsibility for what happens.
D. When group embers dislike the leader of the group, the leader will be slightly more responsible for determining the group's outcome.
60. Which of the groups below may be classified as a secondary group?
A. Roommates
B. Friends you socialize with regularly
C. SGA Committee on Improving Campus Parking
D. Coworkers who regularly share coffee breaks
61. All of the following are needs fulfilled by primary groups EXCEPT
A. achievement
B. belonging
C. inclusion
D. affection
62. Which of the following statements about communication in small-group and dyadic communication is FALSE?
A. Small group communication is more complex than dyadic communication.
B. Communication occurs for self-expression in dyadic encounter, but is a defining purpose for small-group.
C. Most communication in small-group has been carefully planned.
D. In dyadic communication, all participants have an equal share in and equal responsibility for what happens.
63. A small group of employees that meets regularly on company time to recommend improvements to products and work procedures is a
A. self-managed work team
B. primary group
C. high-impact group
D. quality control circle
64. Which statement regarding gender and communication is not supported by research finding?
A. Women display more signs of liking and men more signs of power.
B. Women ask questions to keep a conversation going, but men ask questions for information.
C. Women talk more often and for longer periods of time than men.
D. Women pay more attention to the relationships among group members whereas men are more instrumental, or task focused.
65. Which statement regarding ethnicity and communication is supported by research findings?
A. Some African-Americans perceive European Americans as under active, and some European Americans see African Americans as over reactive.
B. African Americans are more physically expressive, whereas European Americans focus on verbal responses.
C. African Americans communicate less than European Americans when in a small group setting.
D. African Americans are more task-related while European Americans pay more attention to the interpersonal relationships between group members.
66. Which of the roles described below is more an informal role than a formal role?
A. John's role of balancing the checkbook as the club's treasurer
B. Cecelia's role of taking notes as the club's secretary
C. Frank's role of maintaining order as the club's parliamentarian
D. Kathleen's role of "taskmaster" due to her ability to maintain focus and not be sidetracked by frivolity and side talk
67. Which statement below illustrates a task function statement?
A. "Do whatever you want, I don't care."
B. "It doesn't help to call each other names. Let's stick to the issues."
C. "I think Tara's point is well made, and we should look at it more closely."
D. "Let's make a list of what we still need to do."
68. Which of the following is NOT an example of a group norm?
A. The leader of the group always sits at the far end of the table during meetings because that is where she is expected to sit.
B. The leader has a very large vocabulary so she practically needs an interpreter for others to understand her.
C. Meetings of the group almost always last for an hour, no more and no less.
D. No formal speeches for this group; they always act informally, joke, use slang, and laugh a lot.
69. Which of the following is NOT a defining characteristic of a small group according to the textbook?
A. Behavior of the group is based on norms, values, and procedures accepted by members of the group.
B. Each person in the group has a sense of belonging or membership.
C. Each person's success is contingent upon the success of the group in achieving its goal.
D. All of the communication interaction in the group is oral, verbal communication.
70. According to the definition of a small group in the book, which one of the following would NOT be defined as a small group?
A. twelve people who voluntarily serve in the Metro Civil Rights Commission to propose policy to the City Council
B. the Gray Friars honorary, a group of twenty that meets annually at a banquet to initiate new members
C. fifteen women who meet once a month on a Thursday in a support group for victims of wife abuse
D. four old men who meet weekly in the back of a local tavern in their "club" that promotes crime watch
71. Which of the following would NOT be considered a leader according to definitions presented in the text?
A. A person who influences the behavior and attitudes of others through communication
B. Someone who becomes an informal leader by exerting influence toward achievement of a group's goal but who does not hold the formal position or role of a leader
C. One member persuading another to sabotage a group goal
D. Someone who has been appointed or elected to a leadership position.
72. The following are types of interpersonal influence or power EXCEPT
A. Reward
B. Punishment
C. Expert
D. Pride
73. The statement, "Leaders are born, not made" reflects the ______ approach to leadership.
A. Trait Approach
B. Style Approach
C. Contingency Approach
D. The Functions Approach
74. Which statement is NOT mentioned in the research on self-monitoring?
A. High self-monitors are sensitive to contextual cues.
B. High self-monitors have high I.Q.s.
C. High self-monitors are socially perceptive.
D. High self-monitors can adjust their behaviors according to what seems needed at any given time.
75. The statement, "I don't care; whatever you want to do is fine with me" is most likely to be uttered by a ______ leader.
A. Laissez-faire leader
B. Democratic leader
C. Autocratic leader
D. Emergent leader
76. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the functions approach to understanding leadership?
A. This approach focuses on traits, not behaviors.
B. This approach encourages the designated leader to use the talents of all the members.
C. This approach assumes that the designated leader cannot, and should not, provide every function needed in the group.
D. This approach consists of what people do for the group, not what they are.
77. Which of the following is NOT true about situational models?
A. Most models suggest that leaders focus on one or two key aspects of the situation.
B. Situational models generally focus on communicative behavior.
C. Situational models explicitly acknowledge that each member is expected to perform the communication behaviors needed to move the group toward its goal.
D. Situational models suggest that a group's situation changes over time.
78. Which situation invites an emergent leader?
A. The company has just announced impending personnel reductions, and a small group of recently hired employees have gathered to discuss strategy.
B. The company is bringing in a new vice president to be part of the upper management team.
C. The company, named for the family, which founded it, has just announced that the boss's daughter will be the new CEO.
D. The company has a personnel committee that is always headed by the director of personnel with regional directors as its members.
79. Did the President of the United States really have intestinal flu or was it a more serious malady? This is a question of
A. value
B. fact
C. policy
D. interest
80. Which statement about conflict resolution is false?
A. Conflict invariably leads to increased tension in the group.
B. Tension is inherent in small group communication.
C. Conflict and tension in small groups is unhealthy.
D. Conflict should be verbal, not physical, and one should avoid inflicting psychological damage as well.
81. Americans have a cultural bias that favors which leadership style described in the book?
A. autocratic leadership
B. laissez-faire leadership
C. republican leadership
D. democratic leadership
82. Which of the following steps is NOT part of P-MOPS?
A. What is the nature of the problem facing us?
B. What might be done to solve the problem?
C. What will we do to solve the problem?
D. What will we do to put our solution into effect?
83. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of an informative speech?
A. to change the minds of the audience members about an issue or idea
B. to increase what an audience knows about something
C. to improve an audience's understanding about something
D. to clarify an audience's ideas about something
84. Which of the following does an informative speech NOT have to be?
A. enlightening
B. interesting
C. entertaining
D. significant
85. Which of the following topics would be most appropriate for an informative speech?
A. how to perform emergency first aid
B. how to stop smoking
C. why you should vote Republican
D. why you should avoid alcohol
86. Which of the following types of speeches would NOT be classified as an informative speech.
A. speech of exposition
B. speech of definition
C. speech of description
D. speech of signification
87. Which of the following phrases does NOT fit with the immediate behavioral purposes of an informative speech?
A. define words, objects, or concepts
B. distinguish among different things
C. change attitudes, beliefs, and values
D. recognize differences or similarities among objects, persons, or issues.
88. How does the text define information hunger ?
A. The speaker creates a need for information in the audience.
B. The audience anxiously awaits information from the speaker.
C. The speaker has a large appetite for information.
D. The audience has a large appetite for information.
89. A "rhetorical question" is a question
A. that has no answer.
B. for which no answer is expected
C. that the speaker will answer after the speech
D. that appears in the introduction of the speech
90. Which of the following comments would be the best example of extrinsic motivation?
A. "Because I have always wanted to be a priest, I study hardest in my philosophy and rhetoric classes."
B. "I work because I love to work and cannot imagine being any different."
C. "I had children¾well, had children more or less by accident, not because I planned for it or anything."
D. "Because my employer said our raises would be based on it, I am increasing my number of contract reports."
91. Which of the following is NOT informative content, as described in the book?
A. use of roman numerals
B. main points
C. use of subpoints
D. examples
92. Audiences tend to remember and comprehend ______ and ______ better than ______ and ______.
A. fun, games: courses, disciplines
B. generalizations, main points: details, specific facts
C. details, specific facts: generalizations, main points
D. courses, disciplines: fun, games
93. Which of the following is NOT meant by the term information overload?
A. the number of words per minute
B. material too complex to understand easily
C. more material than the audience can absorb
D. using mathematical symbols or undefined words the audience does not understand
94. Which of the following was NOT cited in the text as one of the "special skills of informative speaking"?
A. changing people's future actions
B. defining what a concept is
C. describing how something is
D. narrating or telling a story
95. A synonym is to a comparison as an ______ is to a contrast.
A. aneurysm
B. anomaly
C. antonym
D. analogy
96. The term etymology refers to a word's
A. pronunciation
B. meaning
C. syllables
D. origins
97. Which of the following topics suggests an operational definition?
A. the construction of a bird cage
B. the origins of Unitarianism
C. the delights of Jamaica
D. descriptions of dogs with accompanying slides
98. Abstract is to general as ______ is to specific.
A. cement
B. concrete
C. black top
D. asphalt
99. Explanation is to idea development as narration is to
A. storytelling
B. oral interpretation
C. paraphrasing
D. literary criticism
100. The perspective of persuasive speaking proposed in the book encourages you to study persuasion as a means of
A. skillfully getting people to do something against their will.
B. manipulating images to get people to see something as you want them to see it.
C. convincing people to choose the best ideas, the most workable solutions.
D. seducing people by getting them to do things that are not in their best interest.
101. To "shape" someone's responses through persuasion would mean
A. getting them to move toward some ultimate goal without expecting them to reach that ultimate goal.
B. asking the person to make a dramatic change in their usual behavior.
C. making them feel inadequate unless they do as you say.
D. getting them to do as they did before without changing any behavior.
102. Which of the following is most likely to be the topic for a persuasive speech?
A. handicapped individuals now have rights you need to observe
B. the provisions of the legislation to protect the handicapped are public policy
C. the various building requirements for serving the physically challenged are part of the law
D. what computers can do for the visually impaired
103. The word motivation comes from a Latin term meaning
A. "to secure"
B. "to moderate"
C. "to sensitize"
D. "to move"
104. The appropriateness of self-disclosure by a person high in prestige has been found to
A. decrease as prestige increases.
B. increase as prestige increases.
C. remain the same as that of people low in prestige
D. become greater than that of people low in prestige
105. The main ingredients of logical appeals are
A. propositions and proofs.
B. facts and examples.
C. means and ends.
D. evidence and information.
106. "To refute" an argument means to
A. attack it
B. support it
C. provide evidence for it
D. provide additional arguments for it
107. Which of the following is the best example of an emotional appeal?
A. You should earn a degree because it will increase your lifetime earnings.
B. Seat belts will actually provide more protection for you than will airbags, but airbags are crucial in the worst of accidents.
C. If you exercise at least three times per week, it will help you prevent a heart attack.
D. If you wish to keep your job here, you will start coming to work on time.
108. Which information on fear appeals is accurate according to the text?
A. Strong fear appeals always work better than do moderate fear appeals.
B. Omitting reassurance lowers the audience's ability to recall facts from the speech.
C. Speakers who omit reassurance are regarded as better speakers than those who include it.
D. Reassurance after a fear appeal results in greater opinion shifts.
109. In which of the following conditions do arguments place first or early in a speech have no impact?
A. When the speech is on a controversial issue.
B. When the topic is one with which the audience is uninvolved.
C. When the topic is one with which the audience is highly familiar.
D. When the speech is about a topic the audience perceives as uninteresting.
110. Which instruction for presenting one side or both is false?
A. Present one side when the audience is friendly.
B. Present one side when the speaker's position is the only one that the audience is likely to hear.
C. Present one side when the speaker is seeking immediate but temporary change of opinion.
D. Present one side when the audience disagrees with your position.
111. The term refutation is a synonym of the term
A. counterargument
B. assertion
C. aggression
D. conversion
112. Which advice about arguments is not presented in the book?
A. Novel or new arguments have more impact than familiar ones.
B. A speaker should refute counterarguments before proceeding to his or her own position on the issue.
C. You should point out the flaws in your opposition before you state your own position on the issue.
D. Old arguments work best with conservative audiences; new ones, with more liberal audiences.
113. Using good evidence is an insufficient way to achieve change in an audience; in addition, you need the element of
A. justification
B. proof
C. believability
D. truth
114. Which of the following is NOT a means of resisting persuasion?
A. avoidance
B. skepticism
C. verification
D. acceptance
 

Answer Key for Test "finalquestions.tst", 11/26/2001

No. in
Q-Bank No. on
Test Correct Answer
6 29 1 C; Page 130
6 30 2 D; Page 131
6 31 3 A; Page 133
6 32 4 C; Page 134
6 33 5 C: Page 137
6 34 6 A; Page 139
6 35 7 C; Page 139
6 36 8 D; Page 140
6 37 9 C; Page 141
6 38 10 B; Page 141
7 57 11 A; Page 153
7 58 12 A; Pages 154-157
7 59 13 A; Page 155
7 60 14 D; Page 155
7 61 15 B; Page 155
7 62 16 A; Page 157
7 63 17 D; Pages 155-156
7 64 18 D; Page 158
7 65 19 D; Page 161
7 66 20 B; Page 162
7 67 21 A; Page 163
7 68 22 D; Page 163
7 69 23 B; Page 163
7 70 24 C; Page 164
7 71 25 A; Page 165
7 72 26 A; Page 167
7 73 27 B; Page 152
7 74 28 D; Page 167
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7 79 33 C; Page 176
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7 81 35 B; Page 174
7 82 36 C; Pages 176-178
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7 84 38 D; Page 176
7 85 39 D; Page 148
7 86 40 C; Page 148
7 87 41 D; Page 149
7 88 42 B; Page 151
7 89 43 C; Pages 149-153
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8 33 48 B; Page 190
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8 36 51 C; Page 191
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9 38 62 C; Pages 208-209
9 39 63 D; Page 212
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