1. The word communication comes from the Latin
"communicare," which means
A. "to speak with understanding"
B. "to make common"
C. "to form a community of believers"
D. "to care for others"
2. Which of the following does NOT relate
to the term process?
A. continuous
B. ongoing
C. dynamic
D. static
3. Which of the following terms is NOT part
of the definition of communication?
A. process
B. understanding
C. meaning
D. codes
4. Communication begins with
A. the self
B. the other
C. the dyad
D. the group
5. Dean Barnlund uses a model in which each
two-person interaction really involves
A. six persons
B. three persons
C. one person
D. four persons
6. The model of communication is which senders
and receivers simultaneously send and receive verbal and nonverbal messages
is the
A. action model
B. interaction model
C. transaction model
D. constructivist model
7. Which of the following is NOT a component
of communication?
A. feedback
B. message
C. code
D. action
8. When you do not listen well because you
are daydreaming, it is because of
A. encoding
B. semantic distractions
C. noise
D. channeling
9. Which of the following is NOT a context
of communication.
A. feedback
B. intrapersonal
C. interpersonal
D. public
10. When you look at yourself in the mirror
and decide that you need to comb your hair, you are using what context
of communication?
A. intrapersonal communication
B. interpersonal communication
C. dyadic communication
D. public communication
11. Which of the following does NOT relate
to the term public communication.
A. formality
B. structure
C. planning
D. spontaneity
12. Of the contexts that include two or more
people, the one that permits the least opportunity for feedback is
A. intrapersonal context
B. interpersonal context
C. public context
D. mass context
13. The term that includes the use of language
in communication is known as
A. feedback
B. code
C. meaning
D. context
14. Which term refers to communication between
two people?
A. dyadic communication
B. intrapersonal communication
C. interpersonal communication
D. synthetic communication
15. Saying "uh huh" to indicate that you
understand is classified as a
A. verbal code
B. nonverbal code
C. language code
D. linguistic code
16. The idea that our past experiences lead
us to see the world in a particular way that is difficult to change is
called
A. perceptual constancy
B. selective retention
C. cultural selection
D. stubbornness
17. Which of the following is the best example
of how role affects perception?
A. I am a Cuban American whose parents fled
Havana in 1906.
B. I am an honor student and president of
the student body.
C. I am a person of color.
D. Although few know it, I am a former Baptist.
18. Which statement about co-cultures and
perception is true according to chapter 2 of the textbook?
A. Rural children are more eager to communicate
than are urban and suburban children.
B. Men see talk as instrumental, as something
done for a specific purpose.
C. Suburban whites see talk as a way to establish
a sense of community.
D. Men tend to see communication primarily
as a way to establish a relationship with someone.
19. Which of the following activities does
NOT occur in perception?
A. exploration
B. interpretation
C. organization
D. selection
20. Which of the following is the best example
of selective attention?
A. She immediately spotted the guy with the
earring who looked so much like someone she had known before.
B. They agreed with each other because they
both liked the idea of government ownership of basic industry.
C. He was an expert "body man" in a chop
shop; she was a hair stylist in the low-rent district.
D. They fought constantly over how the children
should be disciplined.
21. When you remember how wonderful your
mother was but forget how often she made you feel inadequate, then you
are exhibiting the perception concept called
A. selective retention
B. stereotyping
C. sexual discrimination
D. selective attention
22. Which of the following would be the reason
why an individual looking at a class picture might see his or her own face
first?
A. because of its proximity to the other
faces
B. because it is figure and the rest of the
class is ground
C. because it is the image that allows closure
D. because it is ground and the rest of the
class is figure
23. If I notice that Bill and Yolanda are
often together and I "fill in" my inference that they are now lovers, then
I am illustrating the perception concept called
A. closure
B. figure and ground
C. proximity
D. filtering
24. Which of the following is NOT cited in
the book as one of the three reasons why differences in perception occur?
A. physiological factors
B. past experience
C. present feelings and circumstances
D. present eating habits
25. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic
of passive perception?
A. People see things identically.
B. Things have inherent meaning.
C. People create meanings.
D. Receivers are objective.
26. The characteristic listed below that
is NOT true of active perception is that it is
A. subjective
B. interpretive
C. active
D. simple
27. Which of the following would be an example
of a physiological factor that affects perception?
A. mental distractions such as daydreaming
B. a homosexual orientation and lifestyle
C. a background in Roman Catholicism
D. a woman who weighs ninety-seven pounds
28. Which concept listed below is one in
which evaluation (positive or negative judgment) plays an important role?
A. self-awareness
B. self-esteem
C. self-concept
D. self-actualization
29. Which of the following best describes
an instance of disconfirmation of a person's self-concept?
A. You think you are socially charming, but
others find you to be obnoxious and let you know it.
B. You believe yourself to be very smart
in math; but because you are a woman, no one else acknowledges your math
ability.
C. You know you are exceptionally beautiful,
and nearly everyone who meets you lets you know in one way or another that
they think so too.
D. Every time you bring up an idea in the
group, someone lets you know that it is a pretty dumb idea.
30. You know you are a marginal student,
your grades show it, and your family and friends do not expect anything
better from you. The responses you receive from others are examples of
A. confirmation
B. rejection
C. disconfirmation
D. submissiveness
31. Of what two parts does self-concept consist?
A. self-awareness and self-image
B. self-image and self-esteem
C. self-esteem and self-consciousness
D. self-awareness and self-consciousness
32. The concept referring to the idea that
messages and feedback from others shape you into what you are today is
called
A. self-actualization
B. self-consciousness
C. symbolic interactionism
D. transactional communication
33. Maslow's pyramid has as its highest level
the concept known as the
A. fully functioning person
B. open self
C. disclosed self
D. self-actualized person
34. Which of the following is NOT a research
cited in the textbook regarding gender and self-concept?
A. The tendency to see yourself consistently
as male or female occurs between the ages of five and seven.
B. Americans tend to start treating baby
boys and baby girls differently from the time they are born.
C. Women tend to have higher self-esteem
than do men in our society.
D. In the United States the so-called masculine
traits are more highly valued than the so-called feminine traits.
35. The evaluative part of self is
A. self-awareness
B. self-image
C. self-esteem
D. disconfirmation
36. If your mother thinks that you walk on
water, then you might try to live up to her expectations. This tendency
is called
A. self-consciousness
B. self-fulfilling prophecy
C. self-awareness
D. self-esteem
37. The term that refers to the arrangement
of words is
A. grammar
B. code
C. encoding
D. syntax
38. The best definition of decoding from
the choices below is the
A. translation of thoughts into words
B. interpretation, assignment of meaning,
and conversion of the words into thoughts of our own
C. arrangement of words according to the
rules of language
D. taking of thoughts, converting them into
language, and conveying them to another
39. Which of the following does NOT mean
that "words are arbitrary?"
A. Words have inherent meaning
B. Words are created by people
C. The meaning of words are decided by listeners
D. Things are named by people
40. Which of the following ideas is NOT conveyed
by expressions like "the word is not the thing" and "the map is not the
territory?"
A. Words are abstractions of that for which
they stand
B. Words are simplifications of that for
which they stand
C. Words are symbols of something else, not
the thing itself
D. Words are universally understood because
they mean something very similar to everybody
41. Semantics can be defined as the
A. science of meaning in language
B. study of transformational grammar
C. discipline devoted to creating words
D. systematic examination of spelling and
syntax
42. Which of the following does NOT accurately
describe what we mean when we say that language is personal?
A. We each have different vocabularies
B. We develop or own expressions to describe
our own reality
C. We have different levels of experience
that limit or expand our capacity to communicate ideas and things
D. We each have developed language without
the influence of our age, gender or personality
43. Which of the following examples best
depicts the denotative meaning of a word?
A. Abortion is the murder of a fetus.
B. Abortion is the termination of a pregnancy
in the first trimester.
C. Abortionis the last ditch birth control.
D. Abortion is the death of a human soul.
44. Which of the following statements about
language is false?
A. Words have only meanings which people
give them.
B. Words also have connotative meanings.
C. The context in which a word occurs helps
us determine which of the possible meanings is intended.
D. The meaning of a word does not change
once it is included in the dictionary.
45. Which of the statements below is an example
of euphemism?
A. toilet
B. can
C. head
D. rest room
46. Which of the following is NOT a true
statement about slang and jargon?
A. Jargon is likely to be used by technical/professional
people.
B. Slang is likely to be used in the neighborhood
and on the streets.
C. Jargon is most likely to be used in the
workplace.
D. Slang is not understood or used by most
people.
47. Which of the following is NOT an example
of a cliché?
A. "You only get out of it what you put in
it."
B. "Our country is more of a banquet than
a melting pot."
C. "The rich get richer and the poor get
poorer."
D. "No pain, no gain."
48. The same bottom-feeding fish known as
bullheads in Minnesota are called catfish in Ohio. This language
phenomenon is classified as
A. slang
B. regionalism
C. euphemism
D. colloquialism
49. Which of the following best typifies
the meaning of the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis?
A. The thought is the father to the deed.
B. If you can't say it, you can't think it.
C. Your language shapes your perception.
D. Your perceptions shape your language.
50. Paraphrasing is the act of
A. repeating what you think you heard
B. repeating what you think you heard in
your own words
C. reporting what you think you heard in
the same words that you think you heard
D. responding to what you think you heard
with a creative interpretation of what you think you heard
51. Which of the following statements is
descriptive as opposed to evaluative?
A. That test was the toughest torture I've
experienced.
B. The test made my hair stand on end.
C. I counted twenty questions of which I
was uncertain.
D. I think I flunked the test because it
was unfair.
52. Which of the following is an operational
definition?
A. A friend is someone who likes to be with
you, who stands by you in time of trouble, and who listens to you when
you need an ear.
B. Love is a mystery, a feeling of euphoria
inspired by the thought of being together.
C. Chemistry is the study of everything since
everything consists of chemical elements.
D. A book is a companion that provides you
with pleasing diversion during your quiet times.
53. Which of the following is the best example
of concreteness?
A. I'm from the States.
B. My hometown is Isle, Minnesota, population
521.
C. Sure, I'm from the Midwest.
D. The place where I'm from is the friendliest
town in America.
54. As he drove out of the driveway, he saw
his wife waving but did not realize that she wanted him to stop to avoid
running over the tricycle. He thought she was just waving good-bye.
The problem in this nonverbal episode is that we
A. use a variety of cues to communicate the
same meaning
B. use the same cue to communicate a variety
of meanings
C. have a one-to-one relationship between
signal and meaning so that one cue has one meaning
D. have many ways to say good-bye including
handshakes, hugging, and waving
55. Sandeep Shukla was fishing far from shore
when his friend on shore appeared to be vigorously signaling him to return.
Unfortunately, he came back a long distance before he realized that his
friend was not even facing the water and that he was simply doing his morning
exercises. This episode is an example of which kind of intentionality
in nonverbal communication?
A. intentional nonverbal communication interpreted
as intentional
B. an intentional cue misperceived as having
another intention
C. an unintentional cue perceived as intentional
D. a cue sent and received unintentionally
56. He acts very interested in her, stands
close, looks deep into her eyes, and brings her drinks during the party.
She observes his words and actions and dares to believe that he is falling
in love with her on this first meeting. Which of the following questions
would an expert on nonverbal communication NOT ask?
A. Is this behavior typical of him (i.e.,
does he do it to someone at every party).
B. Is this party context where everyone is
a bit high on occasion that invites this behavior.
C. Are his verbal and nonverbal behaviors
consistent with each other?
D. Why shouldn't I just go home with this
guy? All the nonverbal cues indicate interest and sincerity.
57. Two men are arguing at the bar when the
smaller one says something unkind about the other's mother. The bigger
fellow glares straight ahead at his opponent, both arms and hands extended
and fingers beckoning as if to say, "Cooome Heeeer." The latter fellow
is using a nonverbal signal that is best described as being an
A. illustrator
B. emblem
C. affect display
D. adaptor
58. As the woman shaded her eyes with her
open hand on her brow, she said, "Wow, is it ever bright out here."
The nonverbal cue here is a(n)
A. illustrator
B. emblem
C. regulator
D. adaptor
59. Which of the following is NOT included
in the study of proxemics?
A. distance
B. space
C. sound
D. territoriality
60. A distance of ten feet between two people
talking is what Edward T. Hall referred to as
A. intimate distance
B. personal distance
C. social distance
D. public distance
61. Which of the following statements about
distance is false?
A. Women exhibit discomfort at the small
space they are allowed by others.
B. Women and children are given little space
in our American culture.
C. Women and children desire more relational
closeness than do males in our society.
D. Men tend to take more room because they
are usually bigger in height and weight.
62. To whom are you the most likely to stand
the closest?
A. a state senator from another state
B. a person of the same race
C. a person who is obviously physically handicapped
D. a stranger
63. Which statement about nonverbal use of
space is false?
A. Strangely enough, people tend to stand
close together in a large space like an auditorium.
B. Strangely enough, people tend to stay
farther apart in small places like elevators.
C. Middle-class suburbanites tend to have
open backyards, but suburbanites in Latin America tend to have walls.
D. Americans tend to stand much closer to
each other than do people from most other countries.
64. Which of the following statements about
touch is false?
A. Men value touch more than women do.
B. Fathers touch sons less than mothers do.
C. Female students are touched more than
male students.
D. Female children are touched more than
male children.
65. Who is more likely to use touch as a
means of communicating?
A. a white American from Salt Lake City,
Utah
B. a black woman from Puerto Rico
C. an English gentleman from London
D. a Frenchman from Paris.
66. Which of the following are NOT paralinguistic
features?
A. pitch, rate, and inflection
B. volume, voice quality, and silence
C. pronunciation, enunciation, and articulation
D. sounds with meaning and words without
meaning
67. Which of the following CANNOT be used
to indicate paralinguistic cues?
A. emotional states
B. personality characteristics
C. intelligence
D. physical characteristics
68. Which of the following findings is true
of the relationship between dress and personality?
A. People who dress with comfort in mind
tend to be low in self-control and introverted.
B. People who dress in a decorative style
tend to be unsociable and intellectual.
C. People who are conformist in dress are
expressive, dominant, and unrestrained in social situation.
D. People who conform to current styles seek
to be accepted and liked.
69. Which statement about clothing and the
perceptions of others is NOT verified by research?
A. Clothing affects others' impression of
status.
B. Clothing and artifacts are unrelated to
how acceptable we find other people to be.
C. Clothing is often cited by women as the
most important characteristic when describing another's popularity.
D. Brightly colored clothing is associated
with sophistication, immorality, and physical attractiveness.
70. Communicating by touch is called
A. tactile objectives
B. objectives
C. territoriality
D. kinesics
71. The study of nonword sounds that communicate
meaning is called
A. kinesics
B. paralinguistics
C. objectics
D. artifacts
72. Which of the following is an example
of a physical distraction to listening.
A. I didn't know what he said because I was
so worried about what the kids were doing in my absence.
B. Are you kidding? All I could think
about was my vacation that starts tomorrow.
C. The two people talking in the row ahead
of me kept me from catching very much of his lecture.
73. A person who gets so involved in the
particulars that she misses the main point is demonstrating an example
of a
A. semantic distraction
B. factual distraction
C. mental distraction
D. physical distraction
74. Which of the following is an example
of hearing rather than listening:
A. He heard what she said and responded with
an appropriate answer.
B. The sound of firecrackers filled the nighttime
air.
C. He heard the sound outside and decided
that the noise must have been a car accident.
D. She heard his cry for help and reacted
by immediately calling the rescue squad.
75. Which of the following is NOT necessarily
part of the process of listening?
A. The stimuli are picked up by the ear.
B. The nerves transmit sensations to the
brain.
C. The brain assigns meanings to the stimuli.
D. The receiver responds with a return message.
76. Which of the following statements about
listening is false?
A. People tend to think they listen well
when they do not.
B. People who are motivated remember more
than those who are not.
C. Motivated people remember about half of
what they heard when tested immediately after listening to the message.
D. Two months after listening to a message,
the receivers will not remember the message at all.
77. Which two concepts seem most closely
related?
A. self-focus and egocentrism
B. defensiveness and self-focus
C. experiential superiority and defensiveness
D. egocentrism and defensiveness
78. Focusing on main points is a method of
avoiding
A. semantic distractions
B. factual distractions
C. organizational distractions
D. physical distractions
79. College students spend approximately
what proportion of their time listening to others and the mass media?
A. 50 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 75 percent
D. 65 percent
80. Which of the following statements about
active listening is false?
A. Active listening is "involved listening
with a purpose."
B. Active and empathic listening are exactly
the same thing.
C. Active listening is characterized by movement,
change, and responsiveness on the part of the listener.
D. Active listening implies feedback to the
speaker.
81. Which of the following nonverbal characteristics
does NOT illustrate positive feedback?
A. forward body lean
B. increased touching
C. neutral expression
D. movement toward speaker
82. Empathic listening differs from active
listening in that
A. active listening is one kind of empathic
listening
B. active and empathic listening are both
purposeful
C. empathic listening adds the goal of understanding
D. empathic listening invites more feedback
83. Which of the following arguments illustrates
the fallacy called the hasty generalization?
A. You're nothing but a skinhead, so I'm
not listening to your ideas.
B. Smoking causes cancer.
C. I ate oysters and got sick, so they must
cause illness.
D. I was jilted by a woman once, so I'll
never trust women again.
84. "You can accept the governor's plan or
his opponent's, but the opponent's plan will bankrupt the state" is a statement
exemplifying what fallacy?
A. equivocation
B. irrelevant conclusion
C. false alternatives
D. begging the question
85. "If one member of the gang is a murderer,
then they all are" is an example of which fallacy?
A. division
B. false cause
C. appeal to the people
D. appeal to authority
86. Which of the following best exhibits
critical thinking?
A. You are able to memorize what you hear.
B. You are able to recall most of what you
listen to.
C. You are able to interpret what you hear
and apply it to other knowledge.
D. You are able to use what you know to apply
standards to what you hear and decide the merits of the message.
87. Which of the following is an inference?
A. I see that road is narrow and curvy.
B. There is no shoulder, and there is no
centerline.
C. The road appears dangerous for ordinary
travel.
D. The trees grow close to the road, thus
reducing light.
88. Which of the following is a logical proof?
A. The Lord says you shall have no other
gods before you.
B. If the pro-choice advocates have their
way, they will be held responsible for murder.
C. You should study public speaking because
the faculty has made the course a requirement.
D. Use Ivory soap because it is inexpensive,
antibacterial, safe and effective.
89. Which of the following statements about
inductive arguments is false?
A. Inductive arguments include a number of
specific instances.
B. Inductive arguments include a major and
minor premise.
C. Inductive arguments result in a generalization.
D. Inductive arguments require an inference.
90. Which of the following statements about
deductive arguments is false?
A. Deductive arguments result in a conclusion.
B. Deductive arguments have three parts.
C. A partial deductive argument is an enthymeme,
D. Deductive arguments require an inference.
91. Deductive arguments must be checked for
validity and
A. accuracy
B. form
C. arrangement
D. appropriateness of inference
92. Which of the following statements about
syllogisms is false?
A. A syllogism has a major premise
B. A syllogism has a generalization
C. A syllogism has a minor premise
D. A syllogism has three parts
93. Which of the following is NOT required
for individual brainstorming?
A. Give yourself a limited amount of time.
B. Critically evaluate every choice before
listing.
C. Select items that have the most appeal
to you.
D. Select items that have the most appeal
to your audience.
94. Which of the following is NOT recommended
in the book as a way to select a topic?
A. individual brainstorming
B. personal inventories
C. personal involvement
D. psychic review
95. Which of the following is NOT one of
the ways of determining if the topic is narrow enough?
A. There is sufficient information about
the topic.
B. The information can be told within the
time limits.
C. The topic can be discussed with enough
depth to keep the audience interested.
D. The topic will appeal to the audience.
96. Which of the following is NOT one of
the four levels of audience analysis?
A. determining whether the audience is captive
or voluntary
B. determining whether the audience is heterogeneous
or homogeneous
C. demographic analysis
D. audience interest in and knowledge of
the topic
97. An attitude is
A. a conviction
B. a predisposition to respond favorably
or unfavorably
C. a deeply rooted set of beliefs
D. a set conviction
98. Which is easier to change in an audience?
A. a value
B. a belief
C. a conviction
D. an attitude
99. Which of the following is an observation
about an audience?
A. The audience is meeting in a sorority
house at one of their regular Monday night meetings.
B. The audience members are members of the
sorority.
C. The audience is interested in hearing
about Greek life on campus.
D. The audience is voluntary because the
members chose to belong to the sorority.
100. Wisdom, freedom, and security are all
examples of
A. values
B. attitudes
C. inferences
D. beliefs
101. Which of the following is NOT a method
recommended in the book for gathering inferences about an audience from
questionnaires?
A. Use word-concepts to find out the extent
to which the audience favors or disfavors them.
B. Ask audience members to rank values.
C. Ask questions that place audience members
in identifiable groups.
D. Determine the audience members' astrological
signs to indicate their states of mind.
102. In public speaking which of the following
are you NOT expected to adapt to the audience?
A. your own personal position on the issue
B. your message, the content of your speech
C. your nonverbal codes
D. your immediate and long-range purpose
103. Which of the following is the best example
of a long-range goal?
A. to increase the number of people who will
vote for the Libertarian ticket in the next election.
B. to be able to cite three reasons why the
audience should take an astronomy course
C. to teach the audience to be able to distinguish
between pinnate and palmate leaves
D. to identify three tourist attractions
available to visitors
104. The word strategic in the term strategic
choices means
A. erratic
B. purposeful
C. random
D. intuitive
105. Which of the following statements concerning
source credibility is consistent with the textbook?
A. Source credibility is a generalized trait
that means that a person with high credibility can be highly credible for
a large range and variety of audiences.
B. Source credibility is an audience perception
that must be established every time a person gives a speech to an audience.
C. Source credibility is an earned commodity
that you get by having a known reputation, good relationships with others,
and respectability.
D. Source credibility is limited to the speech
itself.
106. The definition of dynamism is that the
speaker is perceived as
A. qualified, educated, authorative, informed,
and knowledgeable
B. honest, sincere, friendly, honorable,
and kind
C. bold, energetic, active, and assertive
D. sharing the audience's attitudes, beliefs,
and values
107. The sleeper effect means that the
A. speech was so boring that people in the
audience fell asleep
B. the speech had a delayed message impact
because of separation of speaker from message over time
C. the speech was so boring that it caused
the speaker to lose interest in the speech even while giving it
D. the speech was an unexpected success at
the time it was given
108. The concept of common ground in public
speaking is most closely related to which dimension of source credibility?
A. trustworthiness
B. dynamism
C. competence
D. co-orientation
109. Which of the following is NOT a research-based
finding about source credibility?
A. The introduction of a speaker by another
person can increase the speaker's credibility.
B. The way the other person introduces you
can increase or decrease your credibility in the eyes of the audience.
C. The speaker's perceived status can increase
or decrease source credibility.
D. Audiences are mercifully slow in deciding
a speaker's status or source credibility.
110. Which of the following statements is
NOT reflected in the research on source credibility?
A. Source credibility is directly corrected
with IQ.
B. Poor organization in a setting where good
organization is expected will lower credibility ratings.
C. Good delivery can enhance or improve credibility
ratings.
D. Avoiding nonfluencies can help credibility
ratings by the audience.
111. Which of the following is NOT one of
the four dimensions of source credibility?
A. trustworthiness
B. dynamism
C. personal attraction
D. co-orientation
112. When should you use personal experience
in a speech?
A. When the "personal experience" is really
that of a friend.
B. When the personal experience is true and
typical.
C. When the personal experience is a chance
occurrence.
D. When the personal experience is true and
atypical.
113. The best source to lead you to an article
in Newsweek about an incident six months ago would be the
A. card catalog
B. Reader's Guide to Periodical Literature
C. Index to Social Sciences
D. World Almanac
114. If you neglect to cite your sources
of information, you can be accused of
A. plagiarism
B. omission
C. neglect
D. superficiality
115. Which of the following statements about
oral footnotes is false?
A. An oral footnote always includes the name
of the source.
B. An oral footnote includes all of the information
found in a written footnote.
C. An oral footnote may or may not include
the page reference.
D. An oral footnote is required when you
use a resource outside yourself.
116. Inappropriate conduct for interviewing
a source for your speech would include
A. gaining entry by revealing your purpose:
to secure information for your speech.
B. recording information on a recorder and
with notes whether or not the interviewee knows about the recorder.
C. taking only the time requested unless
the interviewee wishes to extend the time.
D. using prepared questions for the interview
to gain specific information for your speech.
117. In which of the following surveys should
you place the most trust?
A. a survey by a large oil company that shows
its product is better than that of other companies
B. a telephone survey by a weekly newspaper
that indicates prison reform is necessary
C. a university study by known sociologists
that concludes welfare payments are insufficient
D. a woman's magazine survey that questions
its subscribers about drug use by housewives
118. Which testimonial evidence best meets
the criteria for evaluating such evidence?
A. A highly reputable chemist provides testimony
about the reasons why Christians should trust in Christ.
B. An Army officer testifies about what he
heard from others about the presence of MIAs in Cambodia.
C. A cafeteria worker, a student, testifies
about conditions in the cafeteria kitchen.
D. A university President tells parents why
his university is the best choice for their child.
119. Information from which you can draw
a conclusion, make a judgment, or establish probability is called
A. supporting material
B. proof
C. evidence
D. a claim
120. Which of the following is NOT a function
of a speech introduction?
A. to forecast the development and organization
of the speech
B. to establish your qualifications for speaking
C. to state a brief summary of the main arguments
you will be presenting
D. to gain and maintain audience attention
121. Which speech topic might a speaker be
most cautious about when stating its purpose in the introduction?
A. how to construct a small electromagnetic
motor that works
B. three ways to move the economy out of
a recession
C. Harry Truman, an individual who went from
a clothing salesperson to President of the United States
D. alternative concepts of religion that
may differ from the audience's own religious beliefs
122. The method taught for organizing a speech
is
A. a list of key phrases
B. an outline
C. a branching program
D. a list of key words
123. Which of the following is more of a
long-range goal than an immediate purpose?
A. The audience should remember the three
main points.
B. The audience should be able to state the
main contents of a standard first aid kit.
C. The audience should be able to demonstrate
how to change a diaper without hurting the child.
D. The audience should read Gore's book on
the environment to increase their knowledge.
124. Which of the following is NOT a principle
of outlining as described in the chapter on organization?
A. The outline should consist of single units
of information.
B. The outline should be an abstract of the
speech you will deliver.
C. The outline should indicate the degree
of importance of each idea to be presented.
D. The outline should contain a mixture of
sentences, phrases, and words.
125. A rough draft is defined as a(n)
A. tentative plan for arranging the point
in your speech
B. incomplete manuscript of the proposed
speech
C. script of the speech with side notes like
stage directions indicating your nonverbal moves
D. complete sentence outline of your proposed
speech
126. A sentence outline uses complete sentences.
Which of the following examples fits that description?
A. We have to overcome our "bigger is better"
notion that has been encouraged during most of this century.
B. Instead of encouraging bigger is better
mega corporations that use vast resources and energy.
C. Learning how to live small, a key to survival
in the future.
D. A lifestyle designed for permanence, slated
for change, and nurtured for development.
127. A speech that claims that because solid
waste is overcoming our city streets we need to consider recycling is using
which pattern of speech organization?
A. time-sequence pattern
B. causal-sequence pattern
C. spatial-sequence pattern
D. problem-solution pattern
128. A speech on the qualities that make
a fine athlete in the sport of soccer is likely to be using which pattern
of organization?
A. topical-sequence pattern
B. causal-sequence pattern
C. problem-solution pattern
D. spatial-sequence pattern
129. A speech on how to assemble the electrical
circuitry in a basic refrigerator motor would likely use which pattern
of organization?
A. causal-sequence
B. problem-solution
C. spatial-sequence
D. time-sequence
130. Which of the following is more of a
transition than a signpost?
A. My first point is that Americans need
to learn how to get along with each other.
B. Moving now to my visual aid, I will show
you a map of Malaysia that shows its location in the world.
C. Having now discussed why you should activate
your savings account, we will look next at how much money to place in it.
D. I have just told you where to travel on
your next vacation.
131. Which of the following is NOT a function
of the conclusion?
A. the brake light function
B. the review of central idea and main points
C. the audience response you seek
D. the warning light function