Comm101 Midterm PreTest

1.   The word communication comes from the Latin "communicare," which means
A.   "to speak with understanding"
B.   "to make common"
C.   "to form a community of believers"
D.   "to care for others"
2.   Which of the following does NOT relate to the term process?
A.   continuous
B.   ongoing
C.   dynamic
D.   static
3.   Which of the following terms is NOT part of the definition of communication?
A.   process
B.   understanding
C.   meaning
D.   codes
4.   Communication begins with
A.   the self
B.   the other
C.   the dyad
D.   the group
5.   Dean Barnlund uses a model in which each two-person interaction really involves
A.   six persons
B.   three persons
C.   one person
D.   four persons
6.   The model of communication is which senders and receivers simultaneously send and receive verbal and nonverbal messages is the
A.   action model
B.   interaction model
C.   transaction model
D.   constructivist model
7.   Which of the following is NOT a component of communication?
A.   feedback
B.   message
C.   code
D.   action
8.   When you do not listen well because you are daydreaming, it is because of
A.   encoding
B.   semantic distractions
C.   noise
D.   channeling
9.   Which of the following is NOT a context of communication.
A.   feedback
B.   intrapersonal
C.   interpersonal
D.   public
10.   When you look at yourself in the mirror and decide that you need to comb your hair, you are using what context of communication?
A.   intrapersonal communication
B.   interpersonal communication
C.   dyadic communication
D.   public communication
11.   Which of the following does NOT relate to the term public communication.
A.   formality
B.   structure
C.   planning
D.   spontaneity
12.   Of the contexts that include two or more people, the one that permits the least opportunity for feedback is
A.   intrapersonal context
B.   interpersonal context
C.   public context
D.   mass context
13.   The term that includes the use of language in communication is known as
A.   feedback
B.   code
C.   meaning
D.   context
14.   Which term refers to communication between two people?
A.   dyadic communication
B.   intrapersonal communication
C.   interpersonal communication
D.   synthetic communication
15.   Saying "uh huh" to indicate that you understand is classified as a
A.   verbal code
B.   nonverbal code
C.   language code
D.   linguistic code
16.   The idea that our past experiences lead us to see the world in a particular way that is difficult to change is called
A.   perceptual constancy
B.   selective retention
C.   cultural selection
D.   stubbornness
17.   Which of the following is the best example of how role affects perception?
A.   I am a Cuban American whose parents fled Havana in 1906.
B.   I am an honor student and president of the student body.
C.   I am a person of color.
D.   Although few know it, I am a former Baptist.
18.   Which statement about co-cultures and perception is true according to chapter 2 of the textbook?
A.   Rural children are more eager to communicate than are urban and suburban children.
B.   Men see talk as instrumental, as something done for a specific purpose.
C.   Suburban whites see talk as a way to establish a sense of community.
D.   Men tend to see communication primarily as a way to establish a relationship with someone.
19.   Which of the following activities does NOT occur in perception?
A.   exploration
B.   interpretation
C.   organization
D.   selection
20.   Which of the following is the best example of selective attention?
A.   She immediately spotted the guy with the earring who looked so much like someone she had known before.
B.   They agreed with each other because they both liked the idea of government ownership of basic industry.
C.   He was an expert "body man" in a chop shop; she was a hair stylist in the low-rent district.
D.   They fought constantly over how the children should be disciplined.
21.   When you remember how wonderful your mother was but forget how often she made you feel inadequate, then you are exhibiting the perception concept called
A.   selective retention
B.   stereotyping
C.   sexual discrimination
D.   selective attention
22.   Which of the following would be the reason why an individual looking at a class picture might see his or her own face first?
A.   because of its proximity to the other faces
B.   because it is figure and the rest of the class is ground
C.   because it is the image that allows closure
D.   because it is ground and the rest of the class is figure
23.   If I notice that Bill and Yolanda are often together and I "fill in" my inference that they are now lovers, then I am illustrating the perception concept called
A.   closure
B.   figure and ground
C.   proximity
D.   filtering
24.   Which of the following is NOT cited in the book as one of the three reasons why differences in perception occur?
A.   physiological factors
B.   past experience
C.   present feelings and circumstances
D.   present eating habits
25.   Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of passive perception?
A.   People see things identically.
B.   Things have inherent meaning.
C.   People create meanings.
D.   Receivers are objective.
26.   The characteristic listed below that is NOT true of active perception is that it is
A.   subjective
B.   interpretive
C.   active
D.   simple
27.   Which of the following would be an example of a physiological factor that affects perception?
A.   mental distractions such as daydreaming
B.   a homosexual orientation and lifestyle
C.   a background in Roman Catholicism
D.   a woman who weighs ninety-seven pounds
28.   Which concept listed below is one in which evaluation (positive or negative judgment) plays an important role?
A.   self-awareness
B.   self-esteem
C.   self-concept
D.   self-actualization
29.   Which of the following best describes an instance of disconfirmation of a person's self-concept?
A.   You think you are socially charming, but others find you to be obnoxious and let you know it.
B.   You believe yourself to be very smart in math; but because you are a woman, no one else acknowledges your math ability.
C.   You know you are exceptionally beautiful, and nearly everyone who meets you lets you know in one way or another that they think so too.
D.   Every time you bring up an idea in the group, someone lets you know that it is a pretty dumb idea.
30.   You know you are a marginal student, your grades show it, and your family and friends do not expect anything better from you. The responses you receive from others are examples of
A.   confirmation
B.   rejection
C.   disconfirmation
D.   submissiveness
31.   Of what two parts does self-concept consist?
A.   self-awareness and self-image
B.   self-image and self-esteem
C.   self-esteem and self-consciousness
D.   self-awareness and self-consciousness
32.   The concept referring to the idea that messages and feedback from others shape you into what you are today is called
A.   self-actualization
B.   self-consciousness
C.   symbolic interactionism
D.   transactional communication
33.   Maslow's pyramid has as its highest level the concept known as the
A.   fully functioning person
B.   open self
C.   disclosed self
D.   self-actualized person
34.   Which of the following is NOT a research cited in the textbook regarding gender and self-concept?
A.   The tendency to see yourself consistently as male or female occurs between the ages of five and seven.
B.   Americans tend to start treating baby boys and baby girls differently from the time they are born.
C.   Women tend to have higher self-esteem than do men in our society.
D.   In the United States the so-called masculine traits are more highly valued than the so-called feminine traits.
35.   The evaluative part of self is
A.   self-awareness
B.   self-image
C.   self-esteem
D.   disconfirmation
36.   If your mother thinks that you walk on water, then you might try to live up to her expectations. This tendency is called
A.   self-consciousness
B.   self-fulfilling prophecy
C.   self-awareness
D.   self-esteem
37.   The term that refers to the arrangement of words is
A.   grammar
B.   code
C.   encoding
D.   syntax
38.   The best definition of decoding from the choices below is the
A.   translation of thoughts into words
B.   interpretation, assignment of meaning, and conversion of the words into thoughts of our own
C.   arrangement of words according to the rules of language
D.   taking of thoughts, converting them into language, and conveying them to another
39.   Which of the following does NOT mean that "words are arbitrary?"
A.   Words have inherent meaning
B.   Words are created by people
C.   The meaning of words are decided by listeners
D.   Things are named by people
40.   Which of the following ideas is NOT conveyed by expressions like "the word is not the thing" and "the map is not the territory?"
A.   Words are abstractions of that for which they stand
B.   Words are simplifications of that for which they stand
C.   Words are symbols of something else, not the thing itself
D.   Words are universally understood because they mean something very similar to everybody
41.   Semantics can be defined as the
A.   science of meaning in language
B.   study of transformational grammar
C.   discipline devoted to creating words
D.   systematic examination of spelling and syntax
42.   Which of the following does NOT accurately describe what we mean when we say that language is personal?
A.   We each have different vocabularies
B.   We develop or own expressions to describe our own reality
C.   We have different levels of experience that limit or expand our capacity to communicate ideas and things
D.   We each have developed language without the influence of our age, gender or personality
43.   Which of the following examples best depicts the denotative meaning of a word?
A.   Abortion is the murder of a fetus.
B.   Abortion is the termination of a pregnancy in the first trimester.
C.   Abortionis the last ditch birth control.
D.   Abortion is the death of a human soul.
44.   Which of the following statements about language is false?
A.   Words have only meanings which people give them.
B.   Words also have connotative meanings.
C.   The context in which a word occurs helps us determine which of the possible meanings is intended.
D.   The meaning of a word does not change once it is included in the dictionary.
45.   Which of the statements below is an example of euphemism?
A.   toilet
B.   can
C.   head
D.   rest room
46.   Which of the following is NOT a true statement about slang and jargon?
A.   Jargon is likely to be used by technical/professional people.
B.   Slang is likely to be used in the neighborhood and on the streets.
C.   Jargon is most likely to be used in the workplace.
D.   Slang is not understood or used by most people.
47.   Which of the following is NOT an example of a cliché?
A.   "You only get out of it what you put in it."
B.   "Our country is more of a banquet than a melting pot."
C.   "The rich get richer and the poor get poorer."
D.   "No pain, no gain."
48.   The same bottom-feeding fish known as bullheads in Minnesota are called catfish in Ohio.  This language phenomenon is classified as
A.   slang
B.   regionalism
C.   euphemism
D.   colloquialism
49.   Which of the following best typifies the meaning of the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis?
A.   The thought is the father to the deed.
B.   If you can't say it, you can't think it.
C.   Your language shapes your perception.
D.   Your perceptions shape your language.
50.   Paraphrasing is the act of
A.   repeating what you think you heard
B.   repeating what you think you heard in your own words
C.   reporting what you think you heard in the same words that you think you heard
D.   responding to what you think you heard with a creative interpretation of what you think you heard
51.   Which of the following statements is descriptive as opposed to evaluative?
A.   That test was the toughest torture I've experienced.
B.   The test made my hair stand on end.
C.   I counted twenty questions of which I was uncertain.
D.   I think I flunked the test because it was unfair.
52.   Which of the following is an operational definition?
A.   A friend is someone who likes to be with you, who stands by you in time of trouble, and who listens to you when you need an ear.
B.   Love is a mystery, a feeling of euphoria inspired by the thought of being together.
C.   Chemistry is the study of everything since everything consists of chemical elements.
D.   A book is a companion that provides you with pleasing diversion during your quiet times.
53.   Which of the following is the best example of  concreteness?
A.   I'm from the States.
B.   My hometown is Isle, Minnesota, population 521.
C.   Sure, I'm from the Midwest.
D.   The place where I'm from is the friendliest town in America.
54.   As he drove out of the driveway, he saw his wife waving but did not realize that she wanted him to stop to avoid running over the tricycle.  He thought she was just waving good-bye. The problem in this nonverbal episode is that we
A.   use a variety of cues to communicate the same meaning
B.   use the same cue to communicate a variety of meanings
C.   have a one-to-one relationship between signal and meaning so that one cue has one meaning
D.   have many ways to say good-bye including handshakes, hugging, and waving
55.   Sandeep Shukla was fishing far from shore when his friend on shore appeared to be vigorously signaling him to return.  Unfortunately, he came back a long distance before he realized that his friend was not even facing the water and that he was simply doing his morning exercises.  This episode is an example of which kind of intentionality in nonverbal communication?
A.   intentional nonverbal communication interpreted as intentional
B.   an intentional cue misperceived as having another intention
C.   an unintentional cue perceived as intentional
D.   a cue sent and received unintentionally
56.   He acts very interested in her, stands close, looks deep into her eyes, and brings her drinks during the party.  She observes his words and actions and dares to believe that he is falling in love with her on this first meeting.  Which of the following questions would an expert on nonverbal communication NOT ask?
A.   Is this behavior typical of him (i.e., does he do it to someone at every party).
B.   Is this party context where everyone is a bit high on occasion that invites this behavior.
C.   Are his verbal and nonverbal behaviors consistent with each other?
D.   Why shouldn't I just go home with this guy?  All the nonverbal cues indicate interest and sincerity.
57.   Two men are arguing at the bar when the smaller one says something unkind about the other's mother.  The bigger fellow glares straight ahead at his opponent, both arms and hands extended and fingers beckoning as if to say, "Cooome Heeeer."  The latter fellow is using a nonverbal signal that is best described as being an
A.   illustrator
B.   emblem
C.   affect display
D.   adaptor
58.   As the woman shaded her eyes with her open hand on her brow, she said, "Wow, is it ever bright out here."  The nonverbal cue here is a(n)
A.   illustrator
B.   emblem
C.   regulator
D.   adaptor
59.   Which of the following is NOT included in the study of proxemics?
A.   distance
B.   space
C.   sound
D.   territoriality
60.   A distance of ten feet between two people talking is what Edward T. Hall referred to as
A.   intimate distance
B.   personal distance
C.   social distance
D.   public distance
61.   Which of the following statements about distance is false?
A.   Women exhibit discomfort at the small space they are allowed by others.
B.   Women and children are given little space in our American culture.
C.   Women and children desire more relational closeness than do males in our society.
D.   Men tend to take more room because they are usually bigger in height and weight.
62.   To whom are you the most likely to stand the closest?
A.   a state senator from another state
B.   a person of the same race
C.   a person who is obviously physically handicapped
D.   a stranger
63.   Which statement about nonverbal use of space is false?
A.   Strangely enough, people tend to stand close together in a large space like an auditorium.
B.   Strangely enough, people tend to stay farther apart in small places like elevators.
C.   Middle-class suburbanites tend to have open backyards, but suburbanites in Latin America tend to have walls.
D.   Americans tend to stand much closer to each other than do people from most other countries.
64.   Which of the following statements about touch is false?
A.   Men value touch more than women do.
B.   Fathers touch sons less than mothers do.
C.   Female students are touched more than male students.
D.   Female children are touched more than male children.
65.   Who is more likely to use touch as a means of communicating?
A.   a white American from Salt Lake City, Utah
B.   a black woman from Puerto Rico
C.   an English gentleman from London
D.   a Frenchman from Paris.
66.   Which of the following are NOT paralinguistic features?
A.   pitch, rate, and inflection
B.   volume, voice quality, and silence
C.   pronunciation, enunciation, and articulation
D.   sounds with meaning and words without meaning
67.   Which of the following CANNOT be used to indicate paralinguistic cues?
A.   emotional states
B.   personality characteristics
C.   intelligence
D.   physical characteristics
68.   Which of the following findings is true of the relationship between dress and personality?
A.   People who dress with comfort in mind tend to be low in self-control and introverted.
B.   People who dress in a decorative style tend to be unsociable and intellectual.
C.   People who are conformist in dress are expressive, dominant, and unrestrained in social situation.
D.   People who conform to current styles seek to be accepted and liked.
69.   Which statement about clothing and the perceptions of others is NOT verified by research?
A.   Clothing affects others' impression of status.
B.   Clothing and artifacts are unrelated to how acceptable we find other people to be.
C.   Clothing is often cited by women as the most important characteristic when describing another's popularity.
D.   Brightly colored clothing is associated with sophistication, immorality, and physical attractiveness.
70.   Communicating by touch is called
A.   tactile objectives
B.   objectives
C.   territoriality
D.   kinesics
71.   The study of nonword sounds that communicate meaning is called
A.   kinesics
B.   paralinguistics
C.   objectics
D.   artifacts
72.   Which of the following is an example of a physical distraction to listening.
A.   I didn't know what he said because I was so worried about what the kids were doing in my absence.
B.   Are you kidding?  All I could think about was my vacation that starts tomorrow.
C.   The two people talking in the row ahead of me kept me from catching very much of his lecture.
73.   A person who gets so involved in the particulars that she misses the main point is demonstrating an example of a
A.   semantic distraction
B.   factual distraction
C.   mental distraction
D.   physical distraction
74.   Which of the following is an example of hearing rather than listening:
A.   He heard what she said and responded with an appropriate answer.
B.   The sound of firecrackers filled the nighttime air.
C.   He heard the sound outside and decided that the noise must have been a car accident.
D.   She heard his cry for help and reacted by immediately calling the rescue squad.
75.   Which of the following is NOT necessarily part of the process of listening?
A.   The stimuli are picked up by the ear.
B.   The nerves transmit sensations to the brain.
C.   The brain assigns meanings to the stimuli.
D.   The receiver responds with a return message.
76.   Which of the following statements about listening is false?
A.   People tend to think they listen well when they do not.
B.   People who are motivated remember more than those who are not.
C.   Motivated people remember about half of what they heard when tested immediately after listening to the message.
D.   Two months after listening to a message, the receivers will not remember the message at all.
77.   Which two concepts seem most closely related?
A.   self-focus and egocentrism
B.   defensiveness and self-focus
C.   experiential superiority and defensiveness
D.   egocentrism and defensiveness
78.   Focusing on main points is a method of avoiding
A.   semantic distractions
B.   factual distractions
C.   organizational distractions
D.   physical distractions
79.   College students spend approximately what proportion of their time listening to others and the mass media?
A.   50 percent
B.   25 percent
C.   75 percent
D.   65 percent
80.   Which of the following statements about active listening is false?
A.   Active listening is "involved listening with a purpose."
B.   Active and empathic listening are exactly the same thing.
C.   Active listening is characterized by movement, change, and responsiveness on the part of the listener.
D.   Active listening implies feedback to the speaker.
81.   Which of the following nonverbal characteristics does NOT illustrate positive feedback?
A.   forward body lean
B.   increased touching
C.   neutral expression
D.   movement toward speaker
82.   Empathic listening differs from active listening in that
A.   active listening is one kind of empathic listening
B.   active and empathic listening are both purposeful
C.   empathic listening adds the goal of understanding
D.   empathic listening invites more feedback
83.   Which of the following arguments illustrates the fallacy called the hasty generalization?
A.   You're nothing but a skinhead, so I'm not listening to your ideas.
B.   Smoking causes cancer.
C.   I ate oysters and got sick, so they must cause illness.
D.   I was jilted by a woman once, so I'll never trust women again.
84.   "You can accept the governor's plan or his opponent's, but the opponent's plan will bankrupt the state" is a statement exemplifying what fallacy?
A.   equivocation
B.   irrelevant conclusion
C.   false alternatives
D.   begging the question
85.   "If one member of the gang is a murderer, then they all are" is an example of which fallacy?
A.   division
B.   false cause
C.   appeal to the people
D.   appeal to authority
86.   Which of the following best exhibits critical thinking?
A.   You are able to memorize what you hear.
B.   You are able to recall most of what you listen to.
C.   You are able to interpret what you hear and apply it to other knowledge.
D.   You are able to use what you know to apply standards to what you hear and decide the merits of the message.
87.   Which of the following is an inference?
A.   I see that road is narrow and curvy.
B.   There is no shoulder, and there is no centerline.
C.   The road appears dangerous for ordinary travel.
D.   The trees grow close to the road, thus reducing light.
88.   Which of the following is a logical proof?
A.   The Lord says you shall have no other gods before you.
B.   If the pro-choice advocates have their way, they will be held responsible for murder.
C.   You should study public speaking because the faculty has made the course a requirement.
D.   Use Ivory soap because it is inexpensive, antibacterial, safe and effective.
89.   Which of the following statements about inductive arguments is false?
A.   Inductive arguments include a number of specific instances.
B.   Inductive arguments include a major and minor premise.
C.   Inductive arguments result in a generalization.
D.   Inductive arguments require an inference.
90.   Which of the following statements about deductive arguments is false?
A.   Deductive arguments result in a conclusion.
B.   Deductive arguments have three parts.
C.   A partial deductive argument is an enthymeme,
D.   Deductive arguments require an inference.
91.   Deductive arguments must be checked for validity and
A.   accuracy
B.   form
C.   arrangement
D.   appropriateness of inference
92.   Which of the following statements about syllogisms is false?
A.   A syllogism has a major premise
B.   A syllogism has a generalization
C.   A syllogism has a minor premise
D.   A syllogism has three parts
93.   Which of the following is NOT required for individual brainstorming?
A.   Give yourself a limited amount of time.
B.   Critically evaluate every choice before listing.
C.   Select items that have the most appeal to you.
D.   Select items that have the most appeal to your audience.
94.   Which of the following is NOT recommended in the book as a way to select a topic?
A.   individual brainstorming
B.   personal inventories
C.   personal involvement
D.   psychic review
95.   Which of the following is NOT one of the ways of determining if the topic is narrow enough?
A.   There is sufficient information about the topic.
B.   The information can be told within the time limits.
C.   The topic can be discussed with enough depth to keep the audience interested.
D.   The topic will appeal to the audience.
96.   Which of the following is NOT one of the four levels of audience analysis?
A.   determining whether the audience is captive or voluntary
B.   determining whether the audience is heterogeneous or homogeneous
C.   demographic analysis
D.   audience interest in and knowledge of the topic
97.   An attitude is
A.   a conviction
B.   a predisposition to respond favorably or unfavorably
C.   a deeply rooted set of beliefs
D.   a set conviction
98.   Which is easier to change in an audience?
A.   a value
B.   a belief
C.   a conviction
D.   an attitude
99.   Which of the following is an observation about an audience?
A.   The audience is meeting in a sorority house at one of their regular Monday night meetings.
B.   The audience members are members of the sorority.
C.   The audience is interested in hearing about Greek life on campus.
D.   The audience is voluntary because the members chose to belong to the sorority.
100.   Wisdom, freedom, and security are all examples of
A.   values
B.   attitudes
C.   inferences
D.   beliefs
101.   Which of the following is NOT a method recommended in the book for gathering inferences about an audience from questionnaires?
A.   Use word-concepts to find out the extent to which the audience favors or disfavors them.
B.   Ask audience members to rank values.
C.   Ask questions that place audience members in identifiable groups.
D.   Determine the audience members' astrological signs to indicate their states of mind.
102.   In public speaking which of the following are you NOT expected to adapt to the audience?
A.   your own personal position on the issue
B.   your message, the content of your speech
C.   your nonverbal codes
D.   your immediate and long-range purpose
103.   Which of the following is the best example of a long-range goal?
A.   to increase the number of people who will vote for the Libertarian ticket in the next election.
B.   to be able to cite three reasons why the audience should take an astronomy course
C.   to teach the audience to be able to distinguish between pinnate and palmate leaves
D.   to identify three tourist attractions available to visitors
104.   The word strategic in the term strategic choices means
A.   erratic
B.   purposeful
C.   random
D.   intuitive
105.   Which of the following statements concerning source credibility is consistent with the textbook?
A.   Source credibility is a generalized trait that means that a person with high credibility can be highly credible for a large range and variety of audiences.
B.   Source credibility is an audience perception that must be established every time a person gives a speech to an audience.
C.   Source credibility is an earned commodity that you get by having a known reputation, good relationships with others, and respectability.
D.   Source credibility is limited to the speech itself.
106.   The definition of dynamism is that the speaker is perceived as
A.   qualified, educated, authorative, informed, and knowledgeable
B.   honest, sincere, friendly, honorable, and kind
C.   bold, energetic, active, and assertive
D.   sharing the audience's attitudes, beliefs, and values
107.   The sleeper effect means that the
A.   speech was so boring that people in the audience fell asleep
B.   the speech had a delayed message impact because of separation of speaker from message over time
C.   the speech was so boring that it caused the speaker to lose interest in the speech even while giving it
D.   the speech was an unexpected success at the time it was given
108.   The concept of common ground in public speaking is most closely related to which dimension of source credibility?
A.   trustworthiness
B.   dynamism
C.   competence
D.   co-orientation
109.   Which of the following is NOT a research-based finding about source credibility?
A.   The introduction of a speaker by another person can increase the speaker's credibility.
B.   The way the other person introduces you can increase or decrease your credibility in the eyes of the audience.
C.   The speaker's perceived status can increase or decrease source credibility.
D.   Audiences are mercifully slow in deciding a speaker's status or source credibility.
110.   Which of the following statements is NOT reflected in the research on source credibility?
A.   Source credibility is directly corrected with IQ.
B.   Poor organization in a setting where good organization is expected will lower credibility ratings.
C.   Good delivery can enhance or improve credibility ratings.
D.   Avoiding nonfluencies can help credibility ratings by the audience.
111.   Which of the following is NOT one of the four dimensions of source credibility?
A.   trustworthiness
B.   dynamism
C.   personal attraction
D.   co-orientation
112.   When should you use personal experience in a speech?
A.   When the "personal experience" is really that of a friend.
B.   When the personal experience is true and typical.
C.   When the personal experience is a chance occurrence.
D.   When the personal experience is true and atypical.
113.   The best source to lead you to an article in Newsweek about an incident six months ago would be the
A.   card catalog
B.   Reader's Guide to Periodical Literature
C.   Index to Social Sciences
D.   World Almanac
114.   If you neglect to cite your sources of information, you can be accused of
A.   plagiarism
B.   omission
C.   neglect
D.   superficiality
115.   Which of the following statements about oral footnotes is false?
A.   An oral footnote always includes the name of the source.
B.   An oral footnote includes all of the information found in a written footnote.
C.   An oral footnote may or may not include the page reference.
D.   An oral footnote is required when you use a resource outside yourself.
116.   Inappropriate conduct for interviewing a source for your speech would include
A.   gaining entry by revealing your purpose: to secure information for your speech.
B.   recording information on a recorder and with notes whether or not the interviewee knows about the recorder.
C.   taking only the time requested unless the interviewee wishes to extend the time.
D.   using prepared questions for the interview to gain specific information for your speech.
117.   In which of the following surveys should you place the most trust?
A.   a survey by a large oil company that shows its product is better than that of other companies
B.   a telephone survey by a weekly newspaper that indicates prison reform is necessary
C.   a university study by known sociologists that concludes welfare payments are insufficient
D.   a woman's magazine survey that questions its subscribers about drug use by housewives
118.   Which testimonial evidence best meets the criteria for evaluating such evidence?
A.   A highly reputable chemist provides testimony about the reasons why Christians should trust in Christ.
B.   An Army officer testifies about what he heard from others about the presence of MIAs in Cambodia.
C.   A cafeteria worker, a student, testifies about conditions in the cafeteria kitchen.
D.   A university President tells parents why his university is the best choice for their child.
119.   Information from which you can draw a conclusion, make a judgment, or establish probability is called
A.   supporting material
B.   proof
C.   evidence
D.   a claim
120.   Which of the following is NOT a function of a speech introduction?
A.   to forecast the development and organization of the speech
B.   to establish your qualifications for speaking
C.   to state a brief summary of the main arguments you will be presenting
D.   to gain and maintain audience attention
121.   Which speech topic might a speaker be most cautious about when stating its purpose in the introduction?
A.   how to construct a small electromagnetic motor that works
B.   three ways to move the economy out of a recession
C.   Harry Truman, an individual who went from a clothing salesperson to President of the United States
D.   alternative concepts of religion that may differ from the audience's own religious beliefs
122.   The method taught for organizing a speech is
A.   a list of key phrases
B.   an outline
C.   a branching program
D.   a list of key words
123.   Which of the following is more of a long-range goal than an immediate purpose?
A.   The audience should remember the three main points.
B.   The audience should be able to state the main contents of a standard first aid kit.
C.   The audience should be able to demonstrate how to change a diaper without hurting the child.
D.   The audience should read Gore's book on the environment to increase their knowledge.
124.   Which of the following is NOT a principle of outlining as described in the chapter on organization?
A.   The outline should consist of single units of information.
B.   The outline should be an abstract of the speech you will deliver.
C.   The outline should indicate the degree of importance of each idea to be presented.
D.   The outline should contain a mixture of sentences, phrases, and words.
125.   A rough draft is defined as a(n)
A.   tentative plan for arranging the point in your speech
B.   incomplete manuscript of the proposed speech
C.   script of the speech with side notes like stage directions indicating your nonverbal moves
D.   complete sentence outline of your proposed speech
126.   A sentence outline uses complete sentences.  Which of the following examples fits that description?
A.   We have to overcome our "bigger is better" notion that has been encouraged during most of this century.
B.   Instead of encouraging bigger is better mega corporations that use vast resources and energy.
C.   Learning how to live small, a key to survival in the future.
D.   A lifestyle designed for permanence, slated for change, and nurtured for development.
127.   A speech that claims that because solid waste is overcoming our city streets we need to consider recycling is using which pattern of speech organization?
A.   time-sequence pattern
B.   causal-sequence pattern
C.   spatial-sequence pattern
D.   problem-solution pattern
128.   A speech on the qualities that make a fine athlete in the sport of soccer is likely to be using which pattern of organization?
A.   topical-sequence pattern
B.   causal-sequence pattern
C.   problem-solution pattern
D.   spatial-sequence pattern
129.   A speech on how to assemble the electrical circuitry in a basic refrigerator motor would likely use which pattern of organization?
A.   causal-sequence
B.   problem-solution
C.   spatial-sequence
D.   time-sequence
130.   Which of the following is more of a transition than a signpost?
A.   My first point is that Americans need to learn how to get along with each other.
B.   Moving now to my visual aid, I will show you a map of Malaysia that shows its location in the world.
C.   Having now discussed why you should activate your savings account, we will look next at how much money to place in it.
D.   I have just told you where to travel on your next vacation.
131.   Which of the following is NOT a function of the conclusion?
A.   the brake light function
B.   the review of central idea and main points
C.   the audience response you seek
D.   the warning light function